STEP 1 Question of the Month (March)

Conquer STEP 1, One Question at a Time! The answer is explained below.
A 4-year-old male is brought to a clinic because of a 1-week history of fever, cough, and runny nose and a 2-day history of intense coughing spells that last 1 to 2 minutes, occasionally followed by vomiting and dry heaving. His mother says he has not received any immunizations. Temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F). WBC count is 22,000/mm³ with 60% lymphocytes.
Which of the following pathogens is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Measles virus
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Check the answer below 👇
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The correct answer is: A) Bordetella pertussis.
High-Yield Summary
- Pertussis, or whooping cough, presents as initial catarrhal coldlike symptoms, followed by a paroxysmal phase with violent, distinctive coughing (whoops) that can last several weeks.
- Whooping cough is caused by the gram-negative bacterium B pertussis.
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